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Which of the following statements correctly describes one of the main differences between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?


A) Embryonic stem cells only differentiate into only eggs and sperm, and adult stem cells differentiate into any type of cell.
B) Embryonic stem cells can give rise to all cell types in the organism, and adult stem cells cannot.
C) Embryonic stem cells can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period, and adult stem cells cannot.
D) Embryonic stem cells are used to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue, and adult stem cells are not.

E) All of the above
F) B) and D)

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Pax-6 is a gene involved in eye formation that has homologues in invertebrates and vertebrates. The fact that expressing the mouse form of Pax-6 in a fruit fly leads to a compound fly eye (not a single lens mouse eye) suggests which of the following characteristics of this gene?


A) Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence.
B) PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences.
C) Pax-6 gene is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry.
D) PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes.

E) None of the above
F) C) and D)

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Which of the following characteristics of retroviruses most directly contributes to their usefulness in gene therapy applications?


A) After infection, the RNA genome of retroviruses is short lived.
B) Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase.
C) DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell.
D) Conversion of a retrovirus' genome from RNA to DNA occurs without significant proofreading.

E) C) and D)
F) None of the above

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Which of the following characteristics of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting (genetic profiling) ?


A) The number of repeats at a particular STR is inherited following Mendelian genetic patterns.
B) The specific sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.
C) Knowing the number of repeats that a person has at a single chromosomal locus is sufficient to connect that person to a DNA sample from a crime scene.
D) Analysis by RT-PCR allows the profile to be produced even when the sample is in poor condition.

E) C) and D)
F) B) and C)

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Which order of the following steps provides the most logical sequence to follow when splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes (endonucleases) . III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments. V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA.


A) II, III, V, IV, I
B) III, II, IV, V, I
C) III, IV, V, I, II
D) IV, V, I, II, III

E) B) and D)
F) B) and C)

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Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?


A) electrophoresis-separation of DNA fragments
B) DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
C) DNA polymerase-polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
D) reverse transcriptase-production of cDNA from mRNA

E) A) and B)
F) All of the above

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Which of the following describes the best approach to making a gene that contains introns shorter, but remaining functional, for genetic engineering purposes?


A) express in bacteria then a restriction enzyme (endonuclease) to cut the gene into shorter pieces
B) isolate the specific mRNA from the animal then use reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA
C) isolate the specific protein from the animal then use the genetic code to reconstruct DNA from the polypeptide sequence
D) using DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide

E) B) and C)
F) C) and D)

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Which of the following processes is used to convert adult cells into pluripotent stem cells (iPS) .


A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific master regulatory genes.
B) The adult stem cells are fused with embryonic cells.
C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.

E) C) and D)
F) A) and D)

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For which of the following processes can dideoxyribonucleotides be used?


A) to separate different sized DNA fragments
B) to produce cDNA from mRNA
C) to sequence a DNA fragment
D) to visualize DNA expression

E) A) and D)
F) All of the above

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Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of which of the following processes?


A) plasmid replication only
B) bacterial cell reproduction only
C) transformation
D) plasmid and bacterial cell reproduction

E) A) and B)
F) None of the above

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Which of the following statements correctly describes how RNA interference (RNAi) reduces the expression of selected genes?


A) Synthetic double-stranded RNA molecules stop transcription from occurring.
B) Synthetic single-stranded RNA molecules trigger incorrect processing of pre-RNA into RNA.
C) Synthetic double-stranded RNA molecules trigger the breakdown of a gene's messenger RNA.
D) Synthetic single-stranded RNA molecules bind cellular RNA and block translation.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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In large-scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, which of the following types of genetic markers are typically sought by researchers?


A) SNPs found approximately 100-300 bases apart within the genome
B) specific SNPs found more often in persons with a particular disorder than in healthy controls
C) specific SNPs inherited more frequently by members within a family than by unrelated individuals
D) SNPs where one allele is found in two or more adjacent genes

E) All of the above
F) C) and D)

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Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of adult stem cells and other cells isolated from the same tissue at the same time?


A) The two cell types have different patterns of DNA methylation.
B) The adult stem cells have different DNA than the non-stem cells.
C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
D) The non-stem cells have fewer repressed genes than the adult stem cells.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and D)

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Which of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of genetically engineered plants?


A) The modification makes new plants infertile and unable to reproduce without grafting.
B) The alterations can be made in a somatic cell then grown into a whole plant with new traits.
C) Genetically engineered plants are used in research but not yet in commercial agricultural production.
D) Genetically engineered plants are banned throughout the world.

E) None of the above
F) A) and B)

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What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) ?


A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B) The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known.
D) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.

E) All of the above
F) B) and D)

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Which of the following characteristics of RNA-seq make it particularly suitable to use in genome-wide expression studies?


A) It does not require knowledge of the genome's sequence before the study begins.
B) The primers used are at least 15 nucleotides long, and therefore provide high specificity.
C) It measures levels of expression over a narrow, well-characterized range.
D) The process results in cDNA fragments that can be used to reassemble plasmids containing the genome.

E) B) and D)
F) A) and B)

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PCR and cellular DNA replication share which of the following characteristics?


A) require a DNA primer to begin extension
B) extend new strand in 5 to 3 direction
C) form short Okazaki fragments
D) require helicase to separate DNA template strands

E) None of the above
F) A) and C)

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Which of the following measures has been adopted by researchers to address concerns over the safety of using DNA technology?


A) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments must be modified to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
B) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
C) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned.

E) None of the above
F) All of the above

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In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, SCID-X1, how is the genetic engineering of human cells achieved?


A) by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bloodstream
B) by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bone marrow
C) by treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically engineered viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's bone marrow
D) by isolating the patient's bone marrow cells, infecting them with genetically engineered viruses, and injecting them back into the patient's bone marrow

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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Use the following information to answer the question. A piece of DNA was incubated with a restriction enzyme called Hind III. The restriction enzyme digestion produced eight different size fragments that were separated by gel electrophoresis. Which of the following observations correctly describes characteristics of the outcomes of this process?


A) When separated by gel electrophoresis, the pattern of DNA bands specific to Hind III digestion; repeating the process using a different restriction enzyme would not produce these fragments.
B) The sequence that Hind III binds is found at places in this piece of DNA; gel electrophoresis provides the force needed to break the DNA under the DNA-enzyme complexes.
C) If an electrical current is not used during gel electrophoresis, eight separate DNA bands would be visible, but they would not be separated as much as when an electrical current is used.
D) Because restriction enzymes cut specific sequences of DNA, use of any other different restriction enzyme would result in one large piece of DNA rather than eight fragments.

E) C) and D)
F) B) and D)

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